NEET 2023 Biology (Manipur Paper)

Botany - Section A

1. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Protein	(I)	C=C double bonds
(B)	Unsaturated fatty acid	(II)	Phosphodiester bond
(C)	Nucleic acid	(III)	Glycosidic bonds
(D)	Polysaccharide	(IV)	Peptide bonds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	II	I	IV	III
2.	IV	III	I	II
3.	IV	I	II	III
4.	I	IV	III	II

2. Match List - I with List - II

	List - I		List - II
(A)	Hydrarch succession	(I)	Gradual change in the species composition
(B)	Xerarch succession	(II)	Faster and climax reached quickly
(C)	Ecological succession	(III)	Lichens to mesic conditions
(D)	Secondary succession	(IV)	Phytoplankton to mesic conditions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	IV	II	III	I
2.	III	I	IV	II
3.	I	IV	II	III
4.	IV	III	I	II

3. In Calotropis, aestivation is:

1.	Valvate	2.	Vexillary
3.	Imbricate	4.	Twisted

4. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Chlorophyll a	(I)	Yellow to yellow orange
(B)	Chlorophyll b	(II)	Yellow green
(C)	Xanthophyll	(III)	Blue green
(D)	Carotenoids	(IV)	Yellow

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	III	II	IV	I
2.	III	I	IV	II
3.	II	III	I	IV
4.	IV	III	II	I

5. Nitrates and phosphates flowing from agricultural farms into water bodies are a significant cause of:

1.	Eutrophication	2.	Humification
3.	Mineralisation	4.	Stratification

6. Match List - I with List - II

	List - I		List - II
	(Type of cross)		(Phenotypic ratio)
(A)	Monohybrid cross	(I)	1:1
(B)	Dihybrid cross	(II)	1:2:1
(C)	Incomplete dominance	(III)	3:1
(D)	Test cross	(IV)	9:3:3:1

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	III	IV	II	I
2.	II	IV	III	I
3.	II	III	IV	I
4.	IV	III	I	II

7. How many times decarboxylation occurs during each TCA cycle?

1.	Thrice	2.	Many
3.	Once	4.	Twice

8. The dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs during:

1.	Pachytene	2.	Diplotene
3.	Diakinesis	4.	Leptotene

9. Identify the correct statements regarding Mass flow hypothesis.

A:	Mass flow is faster than diffusion.
B:	Mass flow is the result of pressure difference between the end points.
C:	Different substances involved in mass flow move at different paces.
D:	Mass flow can result through either a positive or a negative hydrostatic pressure gradient.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A), (C), (D) only	2.	(B), (C), (D) only
3.	(A), (B), (C) only	4.	(A), (B), (D) only

10. Doubling of the number of chromosomes can be achieved by disrupting mitotic cell division soon after:

1.	Anaphase	2.	Telophase
3.	Prophase	4.	Metaphase

11. Given below are two statements :

Statement I:	RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme in the world.
Statement II:	Photorespiration does not occur in C₄ plants.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

12. In 'rivet popper hypothesis', Paul Ehrlich compared the rivets in an airplane to

1.	species within a genus	2.	genetic diversity
3.	ecosystem	4.	genera within a family

13. In a pea flower, five petals are arranged in a specialized manner with one posterior, two lateral and two anterior. These are named as___________, ____________ and ________ respectively.
1. Keel, Wings and standard
2. Vexillum, Keel and standard
3. Keel, Standard and Carina
4. Standard, Wings and Keel

14. In which of the following sets of families, the pollen grain are viable for months?
1. Solanaceae, Poaceae and Liliaceae
2. Brassicaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
3. Rosaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
4. Leguminosae, Solanaceae and Rosaceae

15. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of another flower of same plant is known as:

1.	Geitonogamy	2.	Xenogamy
3.	Autogamy	4.	Cleistogamy

16. The phenomenon which is influenced by auxin and also played a major role in its discovery is:

1.	Phototropism	2.	Root initiation
3.	Gravitropism	4.	Apical Dominance

17. The transverse section of plant part showed polyarch, radial and exarch xylem, with endodermis and pericycle. The plant part is identified as:

1.	Monocot root	2.	Dicot root
3.	Dicot stem	4.	Monocot stem

18. What will happen if fresh water lake gets contaminated by the addition of polluted water with high BOD?

1.	Amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake will decrease.
2.	The lake will remain unaffected
3.	Number of submerged aquatic plants in the lake will increase
4.	Number of aquatic animals in the lake will increase.

19. The last chromosome sequenced in Human Genome project was:

1.	Chromosome 6	2.	Chromosome 1
3.	Chromosome 22	4.	Chromosome 14

20. The amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, potassium and calcium present in the soil at any given time is referred to as:

1.	Standing state	2.	Standing crop
3.	Humus	4.	Detritus

21. Plants offer rewards to animals in the form of pollen and nectar and the animals facilitate the pollination process. This is an example of:

1.	Amensalism	2.	Competition
3.	Commensalism	4.	Mutualism

22. The species of plants that plays a vital role in controlling the relative abundance of other species in a community is called _______.
1. alien species
2. endemic species
3. exotic species
4. keystone species

23. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Pteropsida	(I)	Psilotum
(B)	Lycopsida	(II)	Equisetum
(C)	Psilopsida	(III)	Adiantum
(D)	Sphenopsida	(IV)	Selaginella

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	II	III	I	IV
2.	III	I	IV	II
3.	II	III	IV	I
4.	III	IV	I	II

24. Inulin is a polymer of:

1.	Fructose	2.	Galactose
3.	Amino Acids	4.	Glucose

25. Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR was isolated from:
1. Thermus aquaticus
2. Escherichia coli
3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
4. Bacillus thuringiensis

26. Name the component that binds to the operator region of an operon and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon.

1.	Promotor	2.	Regulator protein
3.	Repressor protein	4.	Inducer

27. A heterozygous pea plant with violet flowers was crossed with a homozygous pea plant with white flowers. Violet is dominant over white. Which one of the following represents the expected combinations among 40 progenies formed?
1. 30 produced violet and 10 produced white flowers
2. 20 produced violet and 20 produced white flowers.
3. All 40 produced violet flowers
4. All 40 produced white flowers

28. Fatty acids are connected with the respiratory pathway through:
1. Acetyl CoA
2. α - Ketoglutaric acid
3. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate
4. Pyruvic acid

29. Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the following site will result in loss of tetracycline resistance of pBR322?

1.	PsT I	2.	Pvu I
3.	EcoR I	4.	BamH I

30. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Auxin	(I)	Promotes female flower formation in cucumber
(B)	Gibberellin	(II)	Overcoming apical dominance
(C)	Cytokinin	(III)	Increase in the length of grape stalks
(D)	Ethylene	(IV)	Promotes flowering in pineapple

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	II	I	IV	III
2.	IV	III	II	I
3.	I	III	IV	II
4.	III	II	I	IV

31. During symport, two different molecules move across the membrane:

1.	in same direction with the help of different carriers located at a common site
2.	in same direction with the help of different carriers located at different sites in the same cell
3.	in same direction with the help of same carrier
4.	in opposite direction with the help of same carrier

32. Which classes of algae possess pigment fucoxanthin and pigment phycoerythrin, respectively?
1. Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae
2. Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
3. Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae
4. Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae

33. In which disorder, change of single base pair in the gene for beta globin chain results in change of glutamic acid to valine?

1.	Thalassemia	2.	Sickle cell anemia
3.	Haemophilia	4.	Phenylketonuria

34. For chemical defense against herbivores, Calotropis has

1.	Cardiac glycosides	2.	strychnine
3.	toxic ricin	4.	distasteful quinine

35. Consider the following tissues in the stellar region of a stem showing secondary growth.
(A) Primary xylem
(B) Secondary xylem
(C) Primary phloem
(D) Secondary phloem
Arrange these in the correct sequence of their position from pith towards cortex.

1.	(A), (B), (D), (C)	2.	(B), (A), (C), (D)
3.	(A), (B), (C), (D)	4.	(B), (A), (D), (C)

Botany - Section B

36. Which of the following mineral ion is not remobilized in plants?

1.	Potassium	2.	Calcium
3.	Nitrogen	4.	Phosphorus

37. Which out of the following statements is incorrect?

1.	Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
2.	Cyclic photophosphorylation involved both PS I and PS II
3.	Both ATP and NADPH + H⁺ are synthesised during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
4.	Stroma lamellae lack PS II and NAP reductase

38. Match List - I with List - II

	List - I		List - II
(A)	Nitrococcus	(I)	Denitrification
(B)	Rhizobium	(II)	Conversion of ammonia to nitrite
(C)	Thiobacillus	(III)	Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
(D)	Nitrobacter	(IV)	Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	III	I	IV	II
2.	IV	III	II	I
3.	II	IV	I	III
4.	I	II	III	IV

39. In angiosperms, the correct sequence of events leading to the formation of female gametophyte in the ovule is:

A.	3 successive free nuclear divisions in functional megaspore.
B.	Degeneration of 3 megaspores
C.	Meiotic division in megaspore mother cell
D.	Migration of 3 nuclei towards each pole.
E.	Formation of a wall resulting in seven celled embryosac.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)	2.	(C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
3.	(B), (C), (A), (D), (E)	4.	(C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

40. Which of the following statements is true?

1.	All pteridophytes exhibit haplo-diplontic pattern.
2.	Seed bearing plants follow haplontic pattern.
3.	Most algal genera are diplontic.
4.	Most bryophytes do not have haplo-diplontic life cycle.

41. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Agrobacterium tumefaciens ?

1.	It is used to deliver gene of interest in both prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic host cells.
2.	'Ti' plasmid from Agrobacterium tumefaciens used for gene transfer is not pathogenic to plant cells.
3.	It transforms normal plant cells into tumor cells.
4..	It delivers 'T-DNA' into plant cell.

42. Consider the following plant tissues:
(A) Axillary buds
(B) Fascicular vascular cambium
(C) Interfascicular cambium
(D) Cork cambium
(E) Intercalary meristem
Identify the lateral meristems among the above:

1.	(A), (C) and (D) only	2.	(B), (C) and (D) only
3.	(A), (B), (C) and (E) only	4.	(A), (B), (D) and (E) only

43. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Kanamycin	(I)	Delivers genes into animal cells
(B)	ClaI	(II)	Selectable marker
(C)	Disarmed retroviruses	(III)	Restriction site
(D)	Kanamycin ^Rgene	(IV)	Antibiotic resistance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	(II)	(III)	(I)	(IV)
2.	(III)	(I)	(IV)	(II)
3.	(IV)	(III)	(I)	(II)
4.	(II)	(IV)	(I)	(III)

44. Given below are two statements:

I:	The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as transcription
II:	A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in the DNA i.e. a promoter, the structural gene and a terminator.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

45. Which scientist conducted an experiment with ³²p and ³⁵s labelled phages for demonstrating that DNA is the genetic material?
1. James D. Watson and F.H.C Crick
2. A.D. Hershey and M.J. Chase
3. F. Griffith
4. O.T. Avery, C.M. MacLeod and M. McCarty

46. A certain plant homozygous for yellow seeds and red flowers was crossed with a plant homozygous for green seeds and white flowers. The F₁ plants had yellow seeds and pink flowers. The F₁ plants were selfed to get F₂ progeny. Assuming independent assortment of the two characters, how many phenotypic categories are expected for these characters in the F₂ generation?

1.	9	2.	16
3.	4	4.	6

47. During which stages of mitosis and meiosis, respectively, does the centromere of each chromosome split?

1.	Metaphase, Metaphase II	2.	Prophase, Telophase I
3.	Telophase, Anaphase I	4.	Anaphase, Anaphase II

48. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1.	Phase of cell elongation of plant cells is characterized by increased vacuolation.
2.	Cells in the meristematic phase of growth exhibit abundant plasmodesmatal connections
3.	Plant growth is generally determinate
4.	Plant growth is measurable

49. Match List - I with List - II

	Type of flower		Example
(A)	Zygomorphic	(I)	Mustard
(B)	Hypogynous	(II)	Plum
(C)	Perigynous	(III)	Cassia
(D)	Epigynous	(IV)	Cucumber

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	I	II	IV	III
2.	I	II	III	IV
3.	IV	I	III	II
4.	III	I	II	IV

50. Given below are two statements:

I:	The process of translocation through phloem is unidirectional but through xylem, it is bidirectional
II:	The most readily mobilized elements are phosphorus, sulphur, nitrogen and potassium.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Zoology - Section A

51. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections are completely curable?
1. HIV infection and Trichomoniasis
2. Syphilis and Trichomoniasis
3. Hepatitis-B and Genital herpes
4. Genital Herpes and Genital warts

52. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Typhoid	(I)	Protozoan
(B)	Elephantiasis	(II)	Salmonella
(C)	Ringworm	(III)	Aschelminthes
(D)	Malaria	(IV)	Microsporum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	(I)	(IV)	(III)	(II)
2.	(I)	(III)	(IV)	(II)
3.	(II)	(III)	(IV)	(I)
4.	(II)	(IV)	(III)	(I)

53. Which of the following is not a secondary metabolite?

1.	Curcumin	2.	Morphine
3.	Anthocyanin	4.	Lecithin

54. Arrange the sequence of different hormones for their role during gametogenesis:

A.	Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and secretion of Androgen
B.	Gonadotropin releasing hormone from hypothalamus
C.	Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
D.	Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of spermiogenesis
E.	Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(E), (A), (D), (B), (C)	2.	(C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
3.	(B), (E), (A), (C), (D)	4.	(D), (B), (A), (C), (E)

55. House fly belongs to _______ family.

1.	Cyprinidae	2.	Hominidae
3.	Calliphoridae	4.	Muscidae

56. Select incorrect statement, regarding chemical structure of insulin:

1.	Mature insulin molecule consists of three polypeptide chains - A, B and C.
2.	Insulin is synthesized as prohormone which contains extra stretch of C-peptide.
3.	C-peptide is not present in mature insulin molecule.
4.	Polypeptide chains A and B are linked to disulphide bridges.

57. Which one of the following is the quiescent stage of cell cycle?

1.	M	2.	G₂
3.	G₁	4.	G₀

58. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	RNA being unstable, it mutates at a faster rate
Statement II:	RNA can directly code for synthesis of proteins hence can easily express the characters.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

59. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A):	Ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water and allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively.
Reason (R):	Dilution of filtrate takes place due to efflux of electrolytes in the medullary fluid

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is True, (R) is False
2.	(A) is False, (R) is True
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

60. The Cockroach is:
1. Ammonotelic only
2. Uricotelic only
3. Ureotelic only
4. Ureotelic and Uricotelic

61. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the hormone and its function?

A:	Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) regulates the blood calcium level
B:	In males, FSH and androgens regulate spermatogenesis
C:	Hyperthyroidism can lead to goitre
D:	Glucocorticoids are secreted in Adrenal Medulla
E:	Parathyroid hormone is regulated by circulated levels of sodium ions

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(C) and (E) only	2.	(A) and (B) only
3.	(B) and (C) only	4.	(A) and (D) only

62. Select the sequence of steps in respiration.

(A)	Diffusion of gases (O₂ and CO₂) across alveolar membrane.
(B)	Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and tissues
(C)	Transport of gases by the blood
(D)	Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO₂ rich alveolar air is released out.
(E)	Utilisation of O₂ by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO₂

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(D), (A), (C), (B), (E)	2.	(C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
3.	(B), (C), (E), (D), (A)	4.	(A), (C), (B), (E), (D)

63. Which of the following is/are cause(s) of biodiversity losses?
1. Over-exploitation, habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Climate change only
3. Over-exploitation only
4. Habitat loss and fragmentation only

64. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Contractile vacuole	(I)	Asterias
(B)	Water vascular system	(II)	Amoeba
(C)	Canal system	(III)	Spongilla
(D)	Flame cells	(IV)	Taenia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	(IV)	(II)	(I)	(III)
2.	(I)	(III)	(II)	(IV)
3.	(III)	(II)	(I)	(IV)
4.	(II)	(I)	(III)	(IV)

65. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Palm bones	(I)	Phalanges
(B)	Wrist bones	(II)	Metacarpals
(C)	Ankle bones	(III)	Carpals
(D)	Digit bones	(IV)	Tarsals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	II	III	I	IV
2.	IV	I	II	III
3.	III	IV	I	II
4.	II	III	IV	I

66. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Non-medicated IUDs	(I)	Multiload 375
(B)	Copper releasing IUDs	(II)	Rubber barrier
(C)	Hormone releasing IUDs	(III)	Lippes loop
(D)	Vaults	(IV)	LNG-20

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	(IV)	(III)	(I)	(II)
2.	(II)	(IV)	(III)	(I)
3.	(III)	(I)	(IV)	(II)
4.	(III)	(IV)	(II)	(I)

67. Which of the following can act as molecular scissors?
1. Restriction enzymes
2. DNA ligase
3. RNA polymerase
4. DNA polymerase

68. Select the correct statements about sickle cell anemia:

A:	There is a change in the gene for beta-globin
B:	In beta-globin, there is a valine in place of Lysine
C:	It is an example of point mutation
D:	In the normal gene, U is replaced by A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(B), (C) and (D) only	2.	(B) and (D) only
3.	(A), (B) and (D) only	4.	(A) and (C) only

69. Given below are two statements:

I:	Intra Cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is another specialized procedure of in-vivo fertilization.
II:	Infertility cases due to the inability of the male partner to inseminate the female can be corrected by artificial insemination (AI)

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

70. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I (ECG)		List-II (Electrical activity of heart)
(A)	P-wave	(I)	Depolarisation of ventricles
(B)	QRS complex	(II)	End of systole
(C)	T wave	(III)	Depolarisation of atria
(D)	End of T wave	(IV)	Repolarisation of ventricles

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	IV	I	III	II
2.	I	IV	III	II
3.	IV	III	I	II
4.	III	I	IV	II

71. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Eosinophils	(I)	6-8%
(B)	Lymphocytes	(II)	2-3%
(C)	Neutrophils	(III)	20-25%
(D)	Monocytes	(IV)	60-65%

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	IV	I	II	III
2.	IV	I	III	II
3.	II	III	IV	I
4.	II	III	I	IV

72. Given below are two statements:

I:	Goblet cells are unicellular glands
II:	Earwax is the secretion of exocrine gland

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False

73. Given below are two statements regarding oogenesis.

I:	The primary follicles get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells, a theca and shows fluid filled cavity antrum. Now it is called secondary follicle.
II:	Graafian follicle ruptures to release the secondary oocyte from the ovary by the process called ovulation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

74. There are 250 snails in a pond and within a year their number increases to 2500 by reproduction. What should be their birth rate (in per snail per year)?
1. 10
2. 9
3. 25
4. 15

75. Given below are two statements:

I:	The nose contains mucus-coated receptors which are specialised for receiving the sense of smell are called olfactory receptors.
II:	Wall of the eyeball has three layers. The external layer is called choroid (dense connective tissue), middle layer is sclera (thin pigmented layer) and internal layer is retina (ganglion cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptor cells)

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False

76. Which one of the following acts as an inducer for lac operon?

1.	Sucrose	2.	Lactose
3.	Glucose	4.	Galactose

77. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Deforestation	(I)	Responsible for heating of Earth's surface and atmosphere
(B)	Reforesation	(II)	Conversion of forested areas to non-forested areas
(C)	Green-house effect	(III)	Natural ageing of lake by nutrient enrichment of its water
(D)	Eutrophication	(IV)	Process of restoring a forest that once existed but was removed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	IV	III	II	I
2.	I	II	III	IV
3.	III	I	II	IV
4.	II	IV	I	III

78. Diacetyl morphine is also called as:

1.	Amphetamine	2.	Barbiturate
3.	Crack	4.	Smack

79. 'X' and 'Y' are the components of Binomial nomenclature. This naming system was proposed by 'Z':

1.	X - Generic name, Y - Specific epithet, Z - Carolus Linnaeus
2.	X - Specific epithet, Y - Generic name, Z - R.H. Whittaker
3.	X - Specific epithet, Y - Generic name, Z - Carolus Linnaeus
4.	X - Generic name, Y - Specific epithet, Z - R.H. Whittaker

80. Which of the following statements are correct?

A:	Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction
B:	Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex determination in India
C:	"Saheli" - an oral contraceptive for females was developed in collaboration with ICMR (New Delhi).
D:	Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic disorders and survivability of foetus.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(B) and (C) only	2.	(D) and (C) only
3.	(A), (B) and (D) only	4.	(A) and (C) only

81. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Terpenoids	(I)	Codeine
(B)	Unsaturated fatty acid	(II)	Diterpenes
(C)	Nucleic acid	(III)	Ricin
(D)	Polysaccharide	(IV)	Concanavalin A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	II	IV	III	I
2.	II	I	IV	III
3.	II	III	I	IV
4.	II	IV	I	III

82. Given below are two statements:

I:	In bacteria, the mesosomes are formed by the extensions of the plasma membrane.
II:	The mesosomes, in bacteria, help in DNA replication and cell wall formation.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

83. Select the correct sequence of substages of Prophase - I of Meiotic division
(A) Zygotene
(B) Pachytene
(C) Diakinesis
(D) Leptotene
(E) Diplotene
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(D), (B), (A), (E), (C)	2.	(A), (B), (D), (E), (C)
3.	(D), (A), (B), (E), (C)	4.	(A), (D), (B), (C), (E)

84. Brain stem of the human brain consists of:
1. Mid-brain, Pons and Medulla Oblongata
2. Forebrain, Cerebellum and Pons
3. Thalamus, Hypothalamus and Corpora quadrigemina
4. Amygdala, Hippocampus and Corpus Callosum

85. Identify the fossil of a man who showed the following characteristics:
(A) Brain capacity of 1400 cc
(B) Used hides to protect their body
(C) Buried their dead bodies
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Homo erectus	2.	Neanderthal man
3.	Homo habilis	4.	Australopithecus

Zoology - Section B

86. With reference to Hershey and Chase experiments, select the correct statements:

A:	Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA.
B:	Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained radioactive proteins.
C:	Viruses grown on radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive protein
D:	Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained radioactive DNA
E:	Viruses grown on radioactive protein contained radioactive DNA

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(D) and (E) only	2.	(A) and (B) only
3.	(A) and (C) only	4.	(B) and (D) only

87. Select the correct sequential steps regarding the absorption of fatty acids and glycerol, in the intestine:

A.	Micelles are reformed into small protein-coated fat globules called chylomicrons.
B.	Micelles move into intestinal mucosa.
C.	Fatty acids and glycerol are incorporated into small droplets called micelles.
D.	Lacteals release the absorbed substances into the bloodstream.
E.	Chylomicrons are transported into lacteals.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A), (E), (B), (D), (C)	2.	(D), (E), (B), (C), (A)
3.	(C), (B), (A), (E), (D)	4.	(B), (C), (E), (A), (D)

88. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A):	A person goes to high altitude and experiences "Altitude Sickness" with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.
Reason (R):	Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	(A) is False but (R) is True
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

89. The salient features of genetic code are:
(A) The code is palindromic
(B) UGA act as initiator codon
(C) The code is unambiguous and specific
(D) The code is nearly universal
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) and (D) only	2.	(B) and (C) only
3.	(A) and (B) only	4.	(C) and (D) only

90. Arrange the events of Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in correct sequence

(A)	Activation of JG cells and release of renin
(B)	Angiotensin II activated release of aldosterone
(C)	Fall in glomerular blood pressure
(D)	Reabsorption of Na⁺ and water from distal convoluted tubule
(E)	Angiotensinogen is converted to Angiotensin I and then to Angiotensin II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(C), (A), (E), (B), (D)	2.	(A), (D), (E), (C), (B)
3.	(A), (D), (C), (B), (E)	4.	(B), (A), (E), (D), (C)

91. Select the correct statements regarding dissolved Oxygen and Biochemical Oxygen demand.

A:	BOD is inversely related to dissolved oxygen
B:	Low dissolved oxygen and high BOD lead to loss of aquatic life.
C:	High BOD leads to high dissolved oxygen
D:	Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are indicator of health of a water body
E:	Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are affected by amount of organic matter in the water body.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(A), (B), (C), (E) only	2.	(A), (B), (D), (E) only
3.	(A), (B), (C), (D) only	4.	(B), (C), (D), (E) only

92. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	Parathyroid hormone acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption
Statement II:	Parathyroid hormone along with Thyrocalcitonin plays a significant role in carbohydrate metabolism.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

93. Select the correct statements:

A:	Platyhelminthes are triploblastic, pseudocoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical organisms.
B:	Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and fertilization is external.
C:	In tapeworm, fertilization is internal but sexes are not separate.
D:	Ctenophores are exclusively marine, diploblastic and bioluminescent organisms.
E:	In sponges, fertilization is external and development is direct.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A), (C) and (D) only	2.	(B), (C) and (D) only
3.	(A) and (E) only	4.	(B) and (D) only

94. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Gene therapy	(I)	Separation of DNA fragments
(B)	RNA interference	(II)	Diagnostic test for AIDS
(C)	ELISA	(III)	Cellular defense
(D)	Gel Electrophoresis	(IV)	Allows correction of a gene defect

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	IV	I	II	III
2.	IV	II	III	I
3.	IV	III	II	I
4.	IV	III	I	II

95. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of Golgi apparatus?

A:	It is the important site for the formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids
B:	It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP
C:	It modifies the protein synthesized by ribosomes on ER
D:	It facilitates the transport of ions
E:	It provides mechanical support

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(B) and (C) only	2.	(A) and (C) only
3.	(A) and (D) only	4.	(D) and (E) only

96. Select the incorrect statement with respect to Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET) technology.

1.	Fertilised eggs at 4 to 6 cells - stages are recovered non-surgically from a super-ovulating cow and transferred to a surrogate mother.
2.	It is used to increase herd size in a short time
3.	Cow is administered with hormones to induce super-ovulation.
4.	Super-ovulating cow is either mated with an elite bull or is artificially inseminated

97. Given below are two statements:

I:	In cockroaches, the forewings are transparent and prothoracic in origin.
II:	In cockroaches, the hind wings are opaque, leathery and mesothoracic in origin.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

98. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Columnar epithelium	(I)	Ducts of glands
(B)	Ciliated epithelium	(II)	Inner lining of stomach and intestine
(C)	Squamous epithelium	(III)	Inner lining of bronchioles
(D)	Cuboidal epithelium	(IV)	Endothelium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	III	II	I	IV
2.	III	II	IV	I
3.	II	III	I	IV
4.	II	III	IV	I

99. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Cytokine barriers	(I)	Mucus coating of respiratory tract
(B)	Cellular barriers	(II)	Interferons
(C)	Physiological barriers	(III)	Neutrophils and Macrophages
(D)	Physical barriers	(IV)	Tears and Saliva

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	(II)	(III)	(IV)	(I)
2.	(III)	(I)	(IV)	(II)
3.	(III)	(I)	(II)	(IV)
4.	(II)	(III)	(I)	(IV)

100. Select the correct statement/s with respect to mechanism of sex determination in Grasshopper.

A:	It is an example of female heterogamety
B:	Male produces two different types of gametes either with or without X chromosomes.
C:	Total number of chromosomes (autosomes and sex chromosomes) is same in both males and females.
D:	All eggs bear an additional X chromosome besides the autosomes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(B) and (D) only	2.	(A), (C) and (D) only
3.	(A) only	4.	(A) and (C) only

Fill OMR Sheet*

*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

CLICK HERE to get FREE ACCESS for 2 days of ANY NEETprep course

Please be patient as the PDF generation may take upto a minute.

Fill OMR Sheet*