PHYSICS
1.
The variation of the magnetic field along the axis of a solenoid is graphically represented by:
(\(O\) is the centre with \(I,I'\) as the extremities of the solenoid along the axis)
2. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment
\(m\) is placed on the
\(x\)-axis, with its magnetic axis along the
\(x\)-axis. An infinitely long current-carrying wire, carrying an outward flowing current, lies at the origin along the
\(z\)-axis (i.e., out of the plane). The magnet experiences:
| 1. |
zero force, but a torque |
| 2. |
zero torque, but a force |
| 3. |
both a torque and a force |
| 4. |
neither a force nor a torque |
3. An AC source given by \(V=V_m\sin(\omega t)\) is connected to a pure inductor \(L\) in a circuit and \(I_m\) is the peak value of the AC current. The instantaneous power supplied to the inductor is:
| 1. |
\(\dfrac{V_mI_m}{2}\mathrm{sin}(2\omega t)\) |
2. |
\(-\dfrac{V_mI_m}{2}\mathrm{sin}(2\omega t)\) |
| 3. |
\({V_mI_m}\mathrm{sin}^{2}(\omega t)\) |
4. |
\(-{V_mI_m}\mathrm{sin}^{2}(\omega t)\) |
4. To ensure that the magnetic field is radial in a moving coil galvanometer:
| 1. |
The number of turns in the coil is increased. |
| 2. |
The magnet is taken in the form of a horse-shoe. |
| 3. |
The poles are cut cylindrically. |
| 4. |
The coil is wound on an aluminum frame. |
5. A parallel plate capacitor with circular plates of radius
\(R \) is being charged, as illustrated. At the given instant, the displacement current in the region between the plates, enclosed between the radius
\(\dfrac{R}{2}\) and
\(R \) is:
| 1. |
\(\dfrac{3}{4}i\) |
2. |
\(\dfrac{1}{4}i\) |
| 3. |
\({ 3 }i\) |
4. |
\(\dfrac{4}{3}i\) |
CHEMISTRY
6. Match the metal species given in
List-I with their properties in
List-II:
|
List-I
(Complex) |
|
List-II
(Corresponding properties) |
| I. |
\([Cr(CN)_6]^{4-}\) |
(P) |
\(t_{2g}\) orbitals have 4 electrons |
| II. |
\([Ru(Cl)_6]^{2-}\) |
(Q) |
\(\mu_s= 4.9 ~ BM\) |
| III. |
\([Cr(H_2O)_6]^{2+}\) |
(R) |
low spin |
| IV. |
\([Fe(H_2O)_6]^{2+}\) |
(S) |
Metal ion has +4 oxidation state |
|
|
(T) |
\(d^4\) species |
1. I-R, S, II-P, T, III-P, Q, IV-Q, T
2. I-P, R; II-R,S; III-R, T; IV-P, T
3. I-Q,T; II-S,T; III-P, T; IV-Q, R
4. I- P, R, T; II-P, S, T; III-Q, T; IV-P, Q
7. Among the elements \(\mathrm{Sc}, \mathrm{Ti}, \mathrm{V}, \mathrm{Cr}, \mathrm{Mn}\), determine the magnetic moment of the element with the highest ionization enthalpy in the +2 oxidation state:
1. Two (2)
2. Six (6)
3. Eight (8)
4. One (1)
8. A white precipitate was formed when \(\text{BaCl}_2\) was added to water extract of an inorganic salt. Further, a gas 'X' with characteristic odour was released when the formed white precipitate was dissolved in dilute HCl. The anion present in the inorganic salt is:
1. \(\text{I}^-\)
2. \(\text{SO}^{2-}_{3}\)
3. \(\text{S}^{2-}\)
4. \(\text{NO}^{-}_{2}\)
9. Consider the following oxides:
\(\mathrm{V}_2 \mathrm{O}_5, \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_3, \mathrm{Mn}_2 \mathrm{O}_7, \mathrm{~V}_2 \mathrm{O}_3 \)
Number of oxides which are acidic is \(\mathrm{x}.\)
Consider the following complex compound:
\(\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{NH}_2\right)_3\right]_2\left(\mathrm{SO}_4\right)_3\)
The primary valency of complex is \(\mathrm{y}\).
Find the value of \(\mathrm{x+y}\).
1. Three (3)
2. Four (4)
3. Six (6)
4. Two (2)
10. Which of the following is the most stable trihalide of nitrogen?
1. \(\text{NF}_3\)
2. \(\text{NCl}_3\)
3. \(\text{NBr}_3\)
4. \(\text{N}I_3\)
BIOLOGY
11. A study compares DNA sequences of a chloroplast gene among five plant species. The percent differences are shown below:
| Species |
% difference from species X |
| A |
2% |
| B |
4% |
| C |
6% |
| D |
8% |
Which statement is most consistent with the molecular clock hypothesis?
| 1. |
Species A diverged most recently from X. |
| 2. |
All species evolved at unequal rates. |
| 3. |
Species D is the ancestor of X. |
| 4. |
The mutation rate increased over time. |
12. A bacterial strain has a mutation in the lac repressor gene (I-) that produces a completely non-functional repressor protein unable to bind the operator.
This mutant strain is grown in a medium without lactose. Which statement most accurately predicts the expression of lac operon genes (lacZ, lacY, lacA)?
| 1. |
The lac operon genes will not be expressed because even though the repressor is non- functional, the absence of lactose means there is no inducer which is absolutely required for any transcription of the lac operon to occur. |
| 2. |
The lac operon genes will not be expressed because the I- mutation prevents production of any repressor protein, and the cell interprets this absence as a signal that lactose metabolism is not needed. |
| 3. |
The lac operon genes will be expressed at maximum levels, equivalent to normal cells grown in lactose, because the only function of lactose is to inactivate the repressor. |
| 4. |
The lac operon genes will be expressed constitutively (continuously) at basal levels because the non-functional repressor cannot block the operator, allowing RNA polymerase to access the promoter. |
13. In a bacterial culture, 99% of cells die when exposed to an antibiotic; the survivors reproduce, and the next generation is entirely resistant. Which statement is correct?
1. Antibiotic caused mutations for resistance.
2. Resistant mutants pre-existed and were selected.
3. Acquired immunity was inherited.
4. Mutation rate increased in presence of antibiotic.
14. A split or interrupted gene is defined as a gene consisting of introns and exons.
You are comparing a eukaryotic gene's structure with its final mRNA.
The gene is 8,000 bp long and contains 4 exons (200 bp, 150 bp, 180 bp, and 220 bp) and 3 introns.
The mature mRNA is found to be 1,100 nucleotides long.
What is the most likely explanation for this observation?
| 1. |
The calculation is incorrect; the four exons total 750 bp, so the mature mRNA should be approximately 750 nucleotides long; the observed 1,100 nucleotides suggests experimental error in measuring mRNA length. |
| 2. |
The discrepancy indicates alternative splicing is occurring; the cell is producing multiple mRNA variants from this gene by including or excluding certain exons or using alternative splice sites. |
| 3. |
The 1,100 nucleotides include the 750 bp from exons plus the poly-A tail (~250 adenine nucleotides) added post-transcriptionally, and the 5' methylguanosine cap which adds approximately 100 additional nucleotides of modified bases. |
| 4. |
The mature mRNA of 1,100 nucleotides includes the 750 nucleotides from spliced exons plus approximately 350 additional nucleotides from the 5' UTR (untranslated region) and 3' UTR, which are part of the mRNA but not part of the coding exons. |
15. An ancestral lizard species colonises multiple islands. On each island, a different insect prey dominates. Over time, descendant lizard species evolve specialised jaws for that prey type. Which evolutionary process best describes this pattern?
1. Convergent evolution
2. Genetic drift
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Coevolution
16. In Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the heterozygote (Aa) is maximum when:
1. p = 0.9, q = 0.1
2. p = 0.8, q = 0.2
3. p = 0.5, q = 0.5
4. p = 0.3, q = 0.7
17. A pedigree shows the following pattern:
| Generation I: |
Healthy parents (father and mother) |
| Generation II: |
Four children - 2 affected sons, 2 healthy daughters |
| Generation III: |
One healthy daughter from Generation II marries a healthy man. They have 1 affected son and 1 healthy daughter. |
What is the most likely mode of inheritance?
| 1. |
X-linked recessive. All affected individuals are males. The healthy daughter in Generation II is a carrier - she doesn't show the disease but passed it to her son in Generation III. This is the typical pattern for X-linked traits. |
| 2. |
Autosomal recessive. Both parents in Generation I are carriers (healthy but carrying one disease allele). Only males being affected in Generation II is just a coincidence. The affected son in Generation III proves both his parents must be carriers. |
| 3. |
X-linked recessive is unlikely because for the son in Generation III to be affected, his father must also be affected (which he isn't). Therefore, this pedigree doesn't fit X-linked inheritance. |
| 4. |
Autosomal recessive. If this were X-linked, the father in Generation III would need to pass the disease allele to his son, but he's healthy. So it must be autosomal recessive where both parents in Generation III are carriers. |
18. A researcher cultures fruit flies at two temperatures:
Group A (18 °C): Generation time = 20 days
Group B (27 °C): Generation time = 10 days
After 2 years, Group B shows twice as many mutations in a mitochondrial gene.
What does this suggest about mutation rate per generation?
| 1. |
It’s higher at 27 °C per generation |
| 2. |
It’s identical per generation |
| 3. |
It’s lower at 27 °C per generation |
| 4. |
It’s independent of generation time |
19. RNA differs from DNA in two ways: it has ribose sugar (instead of deoxyribose) and uracil (instead of thymine). A student says: "These are just small chemical differences- one oxygen atom and one methyl group. So RNA and DNA should be functionally equivalent molecules."
Evaluate this reasoning:
| 1. |
The reasoning is incorrect. The extra -OH group on ribose makes RNA chemically unstable and easily broken down by hydrolysis, especially in alkaline conditions. This makes DNA much better for long-term storage of genetic information, which is why most organisms use DNA (not RNA) as their genetic material. |
| 2. |
The reasoning is partially correct. These small chemical changes don't affect stability much, but they do cause structural differences - RNA is usually single-stranded while DNA is double-stranded. This structural difference, not the chemical difference, is what makes them functionally different. |
| 3. |
The reasoning is incorrect. The -OH group on ribose prevents RNA from forming the same helical structure as DNA (B-form helix). RNA can only form a different type of helix (A- form), which is why RNA cannot be used as genetic material in most organisms. |
| 4. |
The reasoning is wrong. The methyl group on thymine is essential for DNA repair. When cytosine spontaneously loses its amino group, it becomes uracil. Cells can detect this "wrong" uracil in DNA and fix it. If DNA naturally contained uracil, this repair mechanism wouldn't work. |
20. In fruit flies, two genes control body colour and wing size:
Body colour: B = gray, b = black
Wing size: V = normal, v = vestigial
A female fly (BbVv) is crossed with a male (bbvv). The female inherited B and V together from one parent, and b and v together from the other parent.
Offspring results (2,300 total):
965 gray body, normal wings
944 black body, vestigial wings
206 gray body, vestigial wings
185 black body, normal wings
What is the map distance between these genes?
1. 17 map units
2. 34 map units
3. 8.5 map units
4. Cannot determine map distance
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