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When a \(\mathrm{p\text-n}\) junction is reverse-biased,

1.	no current flows at all for any voltage
2.	a very small current flows, independent of voltage
3.	a small current flows for ordinary voltages, but a very large current may flow if the voltage is increased above a threshold
4.	no current flows for ordinary voltage, but a large current flows when voltage exceeds a threshold

In a nuclear reaction the following quantities is/are conserved:
1. kinetic energy
2. mass
3. momentum
4. all the above

If the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in a Bohr orbit be \(\lambda_B,\) then the total energy in the \(n^{\text{th}}\) orbit is proportional to:

1.	\(\lambda_B\)	2.	\({\dfrac{1}{\lambda_B}}\)
3.	\(\lambda_B^{~2}\)	4.	\({\dfrac{1}{\lambda_B^{~2}}}\)

Two diodes are connected as shown in the adjacent figure. A potential difference is applied across \(A,B.\) Assume that the diodes are ideal.

If \(V_A>V_B\) then:

1.	Current flows through  \(D_1\) but no current flows through \(D_2\)
2.	Current flows through  \(D_2\) but no current flows through \(D_1\)
3.	Current flows through both \(D_1,D_2\)
4.	No current flows through either \(D_1\) or \(D_2\)

The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the ground state of the \(\mathrm{H}\text-\)atom, according to the Bohr model, is \(\lambda_1.\) The wavelength of an electron in the  \(n^{\text{th}}\) orbit of the   \(\mathrm{H}\text-\)atom is   \(\lambda_n.\) Then,   \(\Large\frac{\lambda_n}{\lambda_1}\small=\)

1.	\(n\)	2.	\(n^{{2}}\)
3.	\(n^{{-1}}\)	4.	\(n^{1/2}\)

   

The standard reduction potentials of \(\mathrm{Cu}^{2+} \mid \mathrm{Cu} \text { and } \mathrm{Cu}^{2+} \mid \mathrm{Cu}^{+}\) are 0.337 V and 0.153V respectively. The standard electrode potential of Cu⁺|Cu half cell is: 
1. 0.184 V
2. 0.827 V
3. 0.521 V
4. 0.490 V

The product of acid hydrolysis of (P) and (Q) can be distinguished by:

1. Lucas reagent
2. 2,4-DNP
3. Fehling’s solution
4. Oxime

What is the molality of Na⁺ in a solution containing 3.00 g NaCl (M=58.4), 9.00 g glucose (M=180.0), and 168 g H₂O (M=18.0)?
1. 5.50 × 10^-3 m
2. 0.285 m
3. 0.306 m
4. 0.777 m

Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increase in the order  \(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}<\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{~S}<\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{Se}<\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{Te} \)
Statement II:	The boiling points of these hydrides increase with the increase in molar mass.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Number of isomers of $[Pt$ ${\left(N{H}_3\right)}_4]$ $\left[CuC{l}_4\right]$ complex are:

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	5

Consider the following statements about oogenesis in humans:

I:	The primary oocyte is arrested in prophase I of meiosis and remains so until puberty.
II:	The secondary oocyte is released from the Graafian follicle at metaphase II of meiosis II.
III:	The second meiotic division is completed only upon fertilization of the secondary oocyte.
IV:	The first polar body may or may not undergo a second meiotic division.

How many of the above statements are correct?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Which of the following statements about hormonal regulation of the menstrual cycle is INCORRECT?

1.	A sharp rise in estrogen just before mid-cycle triggers the LH surge that causes ovulation.
2.	Progesterone secreted by corpus luteum maintains the endometrium and suppresses new FSH release.
3.	Falling levels of progesterone and estrogen after corpus luteum degeneration trigger menstruation.
4.	Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) secreted by the corpus luteum prevents its own degeneration if fertilization occurs.

Morgan observed in Drosophila that genes for body colour (b) and wing size (vg) showed a recombination frequency of 17.5%, while genes for body colour (b) and eye colour (cn) showed a recombination frequency of 9.5%. Which of the following inferences is MOST directly supported?

1.	All three genes are on different chromosomes and assort independently, explaining the variable recombination values.
2.	Genes b and vg are further apart on the same chromosome than b and cn, as greater distance increases crossing-over frequency.
3.	The gene for eye colour (cn) is not located on any chromosome, as its recombination value is below 50%.
4.	Genes b and cn show complete linkage since 9.5% recombination is less than 50%, indicating no crossing over occurs.

Consider the following statements about the mode of inheritance of Mendelian disorders:

I:	Two phenotypically normal parents can produce a child with an autosomal recessive disorder if both parents are heterozygous carriers.
II:	Autosomal dominant disorders like Huntington's chorea typically do not skip generations, as the allele expresses itself in every heterozygote.
III:	X-linked recessive disorders such as haemophilia affect females more commonly than males in a population.
IV:	A carrier female (XHX h ) for haemophilia has a 25% probability of transmitting the defective allele to each of her sons.

How many of the above statements are correct?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

During DNA replication, the enzyme responsible for removing RNA primers and filling the resulting gaps with deoxyribonucleotides is experimentally inhibited. Which of the following outcomes would be MOST likely?

1.	Formation of the replication fork would be completely prevented, as primer removal is required for helicase activity.
2.	Only the leading strand would be synthesized; the lagging strand would not initiate at all without primer removal.
3.	Both strands would accumulate excessive supercoiling, halting replication fork progression entirely.
4.	The lagging strand would have discontinuous DNA segments interrupted by unremoved RNA primer sequences that cannot be ligated.

Consider the following statements about transcription in prokaryotes:

I:	RNA polymerase requires a sigma (σ) factor to specifically recognise and bind to the promoter region of a gene.
II:	The template strand of DNA is read in the 3'→5' direction, and the mRNA transcript is synthesised in the 5'→3' direction.
III:	Prokaryotic mRNA undergoes 5' capping with a methyl guanosine cap and 3' polyadenylation before it is translated.
IV:	Rho-independent termination of transcription involves formation of a hairpin loop in the nascent RNA that causes RNA polymerase to pause and detach.

How many of the above statements are correct?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

In a recombinant DNA experiment, the host E. coli cells are NOT treated with calcium chloride (CaCl₂ ) or subjected to heat shock before exposure to the recombinant plasmid.
Which of the following outcomes is MOST likely?

1.	The plasmid DNA would be degraded immediately by the extracellular restriction enzymes secreted by the bacteria into the medium.
2.	The bacterial cells would fail to take up the plasmid DNA, as they have not been made competent to allow DNA entry across the membrane.
3.	The plasmid would integrate directly into the bacterial chromosome through random transposition without entering the cytoplasm.
4.	The bacteria would transfer the plasmid to each other via conjugation, bypassing the requirement for artificial competence.

Which of the following statements about agarose gel electrophoresis of DNA is INCORRECT?

1.	DNA fragments migrate toward the positive electrode (anode) because DNA carries a net negative charge due to its phosphate backbone.
2.	Smaller DNA fragments migrate faster through the porous agarose matrix and travel greater distances from the well than larger fragments.
3.	Ethidium bromide intercalates between the stacked base pairs of double-stranded DNA and fluoresces bright orange when exposed to UV light.
4.	During elution, the desired DNA band is excised from the gel and the DNA is recovered by boiling the gel slice in distilled water to release it.

Consider the following statements about HIV and its pathogenesis:

I:	HIV is a retrovirus that uses reverse transcriptase to synthesise DNA from its RNA genome inside the host cell.
II:	HIV primarily targets and destroys CD4+ T-lymphocytes (helper T-cells), leading to progressive immunodeficiency.
III:	HIV can directly infect erythrocytes (red blood cells) and uses haemoglobin as a substrate for its replication.
IV:	The period between HIV infection and the appearance of AIDS symptoms can range from a few months to several years.

How many of the above statements are correct
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of events within the HUMAN HOST following the bite of an infective female Anopheles mosquito?

1.	Sporozoites enter bloodstream → directly invade RBCs → undergo schizogony → merozoites released → some form gametocytes.
2.	Sporozoites invade salivary glands of the human host → form cysts in liver → zygote develops → merozoites released into bloodstream.
3.	Sporozoites enter bloodstream → differentiate into gametocytes in blood → gametocytes invade liver cells → merozoites released into RBCs.
4.	Sporozoites enter bloodstream → invade liver cells → multiply to form merozoites → merozoites invade RBCs → some RBC-stage parasites develop into gametocytes.